# Could someone explain this arbitrage to me?

Could someone explain how an arb occurs in the following example?

As I see it, and I’m hoping I am way off the mark here, the only way a profit will be made is if no draw occurs. And it will be a decent profit. But the loss on the draw makes no sense. There’s no arbitrage here as far as I can tell.

Rangers win
1.7*70 - 21.39 - 14.32 = 83.29

Draw
27.99 - 70 - 14.32 = -56.33

BSC Old Boys win
4.95*14.32 + 21.39 - 70 = 22.27

The draw is by far the worst outcome. But I’m supposed to be building an arbitrage not a bet.

I was wondering if I misunderstood what “3-Way” meant, but nope, it seems to mean exactly what you’d think it means.

I looked through all the markets on both sites and nothing else matched the odds, so it seems to be plain and simple. But I cannot see the arbitrage.

I’m obviously missing something. Can someone explain this to me? Use baby words if needed because I’m clearly being thick.

Draw. Money lost. WTF?

In case of a draw, you will get your WilliamHill bet refunded as it is a Moneyline (ML) bet. ML is the same as AH(0) (Asian Handicap 0) or DNB (Draw no bet). You can read more about what markets we support here.

So in your example above, if the match ended with a draw, you should have:
Bet 1: Stake refunded (£0)
Bet 2: Bet won (+£27.99)
Bet 3: Bet lost (-£14.32)

Total result: £13.67
Note that this might differ slightly depending on your Matchbook commission level, but it should be pretty close.

Hope this helps.

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That. That is the information I needed. Thank you very much!

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